Probability question for Maths experts

3offTheTee

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OK Idid contact a friend with the information I posted originally who is a bit of a maths guru and he did not come up with 0.73 nor 42! His reply is partly quoted below:

What we need to know is
- how the hole was playing ie of the last 1000 players (or more), what was the average net score, after adjusting for handicap.
- what the standard deviation (or variance) was for each player.

We would have to make assumptions
- that weather conditions etc did not have any impact
- standard deviation assumes a normal distribution, ie an even bell curve. This not the case as the times a player will score an 3 above net handicap is infinitely bigger than the chances of him having a net -3on a hole. The distribution in reality would have a long tail.
- that the standard deviation is the same for all handicap players. Again, this would not be the case, higher handicap players are going to be erratic - ie a 36 handicap player will have more net eagles (gross pars) than a scratch player. likewise he will have more net double bogeys.
- there was no matchplay pressure, hangovers, tiredness, bad backs.......

Without knowing any of the above, let's assume (I am inventing)

handicap 11 has a 30% chance of getting a 4 (50% of getting a 5, 15% of a 6 and 5% of 7 or more).
handicap 12 a 25% of getting a 4......
16 a 15%...
21 a 10%

We'd then multiply these percentages together to get the probability so 1 in 889 with my invented figures.
 

Grant85

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OK Idid contact a friend with the information I posted originally who is a bit of a maths guru and he did not come up with 0.73 nor 42! His reply is partly quoted below:

What we need to know is
- how the hole was playing ie of the last 1000 players (or more), what was the average net score, after adjusting for handicap.
- what the standard deviation (or variance) was for each player.

We would have to make assumptions
- that weather conditions etc did not have any impact
- standard deviation assumes a normal distribution, ie an even bell curve. This not the case as the times a player will score an 3 above net handicap is infinitely bigger than the chances of him having a net -3on a hole. The distribution in reality would have a long tail.
- that the standard deviation is the same for all handicap players. Again, this would not be the case, higher handicap players are going to be erratic - ie a 36 handicap player will have more net eagles (gross pars) than a scratch player. likewise he will have more net double bogeys.
- there was no matchplay pressure, hangovers, tiredness, bad backs.......

Without knowing any of the above, let's assume (I am inventing)

handicap 11 has a 30% chance of getting a 4 (50% of getting a 5, 15% of a 6 and 5% of 7 or more).
handicap 12 a 25% of getting a 4......
16 a 15%...
21 a 10%

We'd then multiply these percentages together to get the probability so 1 in 889 with my invented figures.

I made similar assumptions to get to my estimate of 2000/1.

My thinking was that the stroke index 3 is probably a long par 4 and so a 21 handicapper (and the others for that matter) are less likely to make par than your estimates.

Sure an 11 or 12 handicap may make par 25% to 30% of the time, but less on the 3 and 4 hardest holes. Especially if they are longer holes, which typically add disproportionate levels of difficulty for handicap golfers.
 
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I don't know the probability but I would have cashed out after the 3rd guy made his par (y)
 

rksquire

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Ranges from 16-1 (simple probability as in each guy either can or cannot par the hole (50/50)) to about 1,485 to 1 if you start to introduce some but not all variables!
 
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