barrybridges
Head Pro
In relation to Tiger pulling out of Sawgrass...
I see a lot of people posting (here and in other forums) saying how he was clearly carrying an injury and hadn't recovered properly.
What I don't understand - and maybe I'm an idiot - is surely TW had actually hit some balls between the masters and today? In which case, how much of a co-incidence is it that the injury flared up today of all days?
I'm not saying it's made up, but golf isn't like other sports. In athletics - for example - a marathon runner might aggravate an existing injury because their event - the marathon - is much tougher than their training for that event.
With golf, surely there's no difference between a player hitting a ball on the course during competition vs hitting a ball on a course for practice?
Do you see what I'm saying? If this was a genuine flare-up of an existing injury, why did it happen today and not in practice previously? Surely he would have known that he wasn't recovered?
I'm pretty cynical - I can't see how one of the world's top athletes would enter a competition knowing they weren't fully recovered. Presumably he has practiced recently and got through that practice just fine. In which case, it's a massive co-incidence that the problem appears today just as he shoots a bad 1/2 round...?
Or am I too cynical?
I see a lot of people posting (here and in other forums) saying how he was clearly carrying an injury and hadn't recovered properly.
What I don't understand - and maybe I'm an idiot - is surely TW had actually hit some balls between the masters and today? In which case, how much of a co-incidence is it that the injury flared up today of all days?
I'm not saying it's made up, but golf isn't like other sports. In athletics - for example - a marathon runner might aggravate an existing injury because their event - the marathon - is much tougher than their training for that event.
With golf, surely there's no difference between a player hitting a ball on the course during competition vs hitting a ball on a course for practice?
Do you see what I'm saying? If this was a genuine flare-up of an existing injury, why did it happen today and not in practice previously? Surely he would have known that he wasn't recovered?
I'm pretty cynical - I can't see how one of the world's top athletes would enter a competition knowing they weren't fully recovered. Presumably he has practiced recently and got through that practice just fine. In which case, it's a massive co-incidence that the problem appears today just as he shoots a bad 1/2 round...?
Or am I too cynical?