rulefan
Tour Winner
and me
You were right, they were wrong. They were doing it the pre WHS wayApologies for checking again - but once more today on 1st tee my four ball had a debate on calculating shots given/received in a 4BBB match and once more I was outvoted 3-1.
My view was that each of the four of us calculates our PH as 90% of our CH. Shots received by each player is then the full difference of each player’s PH and the lowest PH of the four.
The others said we difference in full each player‘s CH and the lowest CH, then for each player we calculate shots received as 90% of that difference.
Who was right - me or the three others - or is the outcome always the same and so it doesn’t matter.
Sorry for asking again. Just getting a bit frustrated and stupid if I am still getting it wrong.
It winds me up to hear my PPs suggest that it makes no difference which way we calculate the 90% in 4BBB matchplay. It matters. Played yesterday and calculated correctly, I only had to give one PP 3 shots instead of the 4 shots he wanted ”using the traditional way”. Whenever a PP comments on a rule ‘we don’t do that’ or similar, my response is , well if you don’t want to play to all the rules, then I’m not going to play to the one that requires you to count all your shots!Apologies for checking again - but once more today on 1st tee my four ball had a debate on calculating shots given/received in a 4BBB match and once more I was outvoted 3-1.
My view was that each of the four of us calculates our PH as 90% of our CH. Shots received by each player is then the full difference of each player’s PH and the lowest PH of the four.
The others said we difference in full each player‘s CH and the lowest CH, then for each player we calculate shots received as 90% of that difference.
Who was right - me or the three others - or is the outcome always the same and so it doesn’t matter.
Sorry for asking again. Just getting a bit frustrated and stupid if I am still getting it wrong.
I think I might print Pages 95-97 from the WHS manual, make sure they are in my golf bag before any fourball match. If anyone wants to argue how it is done, I can show them this extract that provides 2 worked examples.It winds me up to hear my PPs suggest that it makes no difference which way we calculate the 90% in 4BBB matchplay. It matters. Played yesterday and calculated correctly, I only had to give one PP 3 shots instead of the 4 shots he wanted ”using the traditional way”. Whenever a PP comments on a rule ‘we don’t do that’ or similar, my response is , well if you don’t want to play to all the rules, then I’m not going to play to the one that requires you to count all your shots!
(standing by for the post ‘Then you’d be DQ’d)
Our Seniors Captain has agreed to reiterate the correct calculation when he welcomes the visiting team in the future.I admit that in our roll-up games I have so far been a coward and copped out of explaining this to my fellow seniors, but it will have to be tackled before any formal competitions.
Our Seniors Captain has agreed to reiterate the correct calculation when he welcomes the visiting team in the future.
Apologies for checking again - but once more today on 1st tee my four ball had a debate on calculating shots given/received in a 4BBB match and once more I was outvoted 3-1.
My view was that each of the four of us calculates our PH as 90% of our CH. Shots received by each player is then the full difference of each player’s PH and the lowest PH of the four.
The others said we difference in full each player‘s CH and the lowest CH, then for each player we calculate shots received as 90% of that difference.
Who was right - me or the three others - or is the outcome always the same and so it doesn’t matter.
Sorry for asking again. Just getting a bit frustrated and stupid if I am still getting it wrong.
I admit that in our roll-up games I have so far been a coward and copped out of explaining this to my fellow seniors, but it will have to be tackled before any formal competitions.
That would be incorrect. That implies you take the difference in course handicaps, then do 90% the difference. Or, the wording is confusing at best I think.I don't know what all the fuss is about. Here is the note I have included on the draws for Club and Seniors Pairs knockouts. I only hope that I have got it right:
"4-ball better ball using the difference in 90% of Course Handicap (at time of playing) from lowest handicap of the 4 players."
Indeed. It should be made absolutely clear that the allowance is the FULL difference in PLAYING HANDICAPS from the lowest.That would be incorrect. That implies you take the difference in course handicaps, then do 90% the difference. Or, the wording is confusing at best I think.
That is the old way.
You need to work out all 4 Playing handicaps first, which are 90% the Course handicap. THEN you take the full difference in the Playing handicaps, against the lowest player.
Maybe I am reading this wrongly, but wouldn't you have 1 playing partner (PP), and 2 opponents?It winds me up to hear my PPs suggest that it makes no difference which way we calculate the 90% in 4BBB matchplay. It matters. Played yesterday and calculated correctly, I only had to give one PP 3 shots instead of the 4 shots he wanted ”using the traditional way”. Whenever a PP comments on a rule ‘we don’t do that’ or similar, my response is , well if you don’t want to play to all the rules, then I’m not going to play to the one that requires you to count all your shots!
(standing by for the post ‘Then you’d be DQ’d)
Maybe I am reading this wrongly, but wouldn't you have 1 playing partner (PP), and 2 opponents?
The three guys I played with were mid-week seniors and it was my first time playing with two of them - I knew the third guy well - one of my regular rollup - and indeed he was the most insistent...I admit that in our roll-up games I have so far been a coward and copped out of explaining this to my fellow seniors, but it will have to be tackled before any formal competitions.
I suspect and fear that I shall have to be repeating these words on a fairly regular basis.Indeed. It should be made absolutely clear that the allowance is the FULL difference in PLAYING HANDICAPS from the lowest.
Knowing that I frequent this place where any golf related query can be answered, a friend of mine asked me to explain the following. It stumped me so....
He hasn't played in a Q comp for years but had a H/C of 5 which he was happy to keep (suited his ego). With WHS coming up he decided to put some general play cards in for rounds at his and one other club, 3 in total. He got this. His round of 9th Sept was used for WHS index change but his round of 11th, although 10 over par, saw a reduction to his WHS Index to 2.9. Is it correct please, and can you explain it in terms that a nomad like me can understand.
Sorry about the vertical formatting, it's as he pinged it across to me.
TIA
Played
Marker
Crse Rating
Slope
Adj Gross
PCC
Score Diff
WHS Index
Course Hdcp
11/09/2020
White
69.4
130
79
0
8.3
2.9
3
09/09/2020
White
69.4
130
75
0
4.9 @
5.0
6
04/09/2020
White
72.8
134
83
0
8.6
5.0
6
That would be incorrect. That implies you take the difference in course handicaps, then do 90% the difference. Or, the wording is confusing at best I think.
That is the old way.
You need to work out all 4 Playing handicaps first, which are 90% the Course handicap. THEN you take the full difference in the Playing handicaps, against the lowest player.
I don't know what all the fuss is about. Here is the note I have included on the draws for Club and Seniors Pairs knockouts. I only hope that I have got it right: