The prince and the sex offender

Canary_Yellow

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Can a civil case prove a law has been broken? If it can and a guilty verdict was passed then I assume a criminal sentence could be passed?

It's a different threshold, so you could have one and not the other, but they're completely separate processes. You'd think a civil case could only happen after the decision has been made not to have a criminal case, otherwise, how could there ever be a fair criminal trial if a jury has already decided the outcome for civil purposes? Dunno if that's the case though, this is the US of A we're dealing with afterall.
 

Lord Tyrion

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Can a civil case prove a law has been broken? If it can and a guilty verdict was passed then I assume a criminal sentence could be passed?
It's a different level of proof required so unlikely. It doesn't need to be beyond reasonable doubt, just highly likely. Just saying it was likely does not say for certain that a law was broken.

Even when OJ lost his civil case there was no criminal sentence and that related to murder.
 

SocketRocket

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It's a different level of proof required so unlikely. It doesn't need to be beyond reasonable doubt, just highly likely. Just saying it was likely does not say for certain that a law was broken.

Even when OJ lost his civil case there was no criminal sentence and that related to murder.
I don't understand the legal position, maybe someone here does have experience of this.

Let's say in the UK a law is broken and the DPP decides it's not worth the cost to take to court. If a citizen then decided they are not happy with this and takes out a private court case and wins, could the person losing be sentenced for breaking a law? It seems logical that this could be the case.
 

GB72

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I don't understand the legal position, maybe someone here does have experience of this.

Let's say in the UK a law is broken and the DPP decides it's not worth the cost to take to court. If a citizen then decided they are not happy with this and takes out a private court case and wins, could the person losing be sentenced for breaking a law? It seems logical that this could be the case.

Not necessarily in the UK. For a civil action to be a success, the case only needs be proved on the balance of probabilities and that is a far lower burden than proof beyond reasonable doubt for criminal proceedings. Basically the difference between 'it is more likely than not' that he did it and 'it is certainly that he did it'. THe CPS have to look at matters based on whether they can be proved to the higher standard and a ruling in a civil court would do little to change such a judgement. Even if they did, it would not be difficult for a defendent to prove that he could not be tried fairly if the results of a well publicised civil case were all over the papers as it would be hard to find a jury not swayed by those reports.

What you have to look at as well is the tarnishing of an institution that would be inevitable with a long, drawn out, muck raking civil trial with the possibility of members of the royal family being deposed for evidence. Whilst not supporting Andrew in any way shape or form, it is not beyond the realms of possibility that he was, to all intents and purposes, ordered to make it go away by paying up. His reputation would be shot but the stench of the whole thing would not spread as far amongst the whole family.
 

Junior

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If it was your daughter, would you know this was happening? Did her parents know this was happening (I've not heard tracked what their side of the story was). Or, did they just assume she was working with high profile people legitimately? I think it is unfair to claim someone else would have acted differently as a parent in hindsight, when you may have no clue what was going on at the time. And, even if you suspected it, would a daughter agree to everything their parents tell them, or would that not sound overly controlling? Unless the daughter shared everything that she got up to with her parents, then it is difficult for the parents to do a lot unless they can find out what is going on by other means. And, if somebody is grooming a girl, I am sure part of that process is making sure the girl does not tell anyone what is really going on.

Why did she not walk away? Again, surely if it was that easy then you could say that about the vast majority of these types of cases? Unless the girl is physically kidnapped and locked up, you could always say "why did they not leave?". I'm no expert psychologist, but surely at the time kids at that age are extremely impressionable? They'll feel important and that they are being cared for. Even if bad things happen, they'll be convinced that this is just normal in that sort of life. They'll fear leaving and then losing out financially, or these people who appear nice to them, to suddenly ostracise them. They'll feel they do not have much to run away to, people they feel will look after them as much as they think these people are. I reckon when you are a teenager, you are still immature. You want to look for independence and find your place in the world, but you have no settled life experiences to truly understand the rights and wrongs in everything. So, if you come across some very powerful, successful and charismatic adults, it is so easy to think they are well respected and decent people. I think you'd struggle to even determine that what they get you to do is illegal, or that you'd never be believed.

Also, these people were friends with the likes of Bill Clinton. With such powerful friends, ir could be difficult for a youngster to even suspect they are rotten to the core. In fact, it would be difficult for an adult to suspect this, unless the adult saw this with their own eyes, or took advantage of it themselves by breaking the law and assaulting these girls.

Yes, of course I would. She was 17 not 25. You raise a good point though. She might not even have had any parents or adult role models. As such , it made her a perfect target for the likes of Maxwell and Epstein.

Please don't think I'm condoning anything that happened. I think Andrew, Maxwell and Epstein are scum. She was impressionable and the poor girl got swept away in a lifestyle that appeared lavish (private jets, fancy hotels) but in reality is vulger, seedy and disgusting.
 

bobmac

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Not necessarily in the UK. For a civil action to be a success, the case only needs be proved on the balance of probabilities and that is a far lower burden than proof beyond reasonable doubt for criminal proceedings. Basically the difference between 'it is more likely than not' that he did it and 'it is certainly that he did it'. THe CPS have to look at matters based on whether they can be proved to the higher standard and a ruling in a civil court would do little to change such a judgement. Even if they did, it would not be difficult for a defendent to prove that he could not be tried fairly if the results of a well publicised civil case were all over the papers as it would be hard to find a jury not swayed by those reports.

What you have to look at as well is the tarnishing of an institution that would be inevitable with a long, drawn out, muck raking civil trial with the possibility of members of the royal family being deposed for evidence. Whilst not supporting Andrew in any way shape or form, it is not beyond the realms of possibility that he was, to all intents and purposes, ordered to make it go away by paying up. His reputation would be shot but the stench of the whole thing would not spread as far amongst the whole family.

So he would take one for the team :whistle:
 

rulefan

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If a citizen then decided they are not happy with this and takes out a private court case and wins, could the person losing be sentenced for breaking a law?
No. Civil action and criminal prosecution are entirely separate.
And most/many civil cases don't have a jury.
 

Swinglowandslow

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I don't understand the legal position, maybe someone here does have experience of this.

Let's say in the UK a law is broken and the DPP decides it's not worth the cost to take to court. If a citizen then decided they are not happy with this and takes out a private court case and wins, could the person losing be sentenced for breaking a law? It seems logical that this could be the case.

No, not exactly. They are two different levels of proof required.
In your example,you are talking about a private prosecution.
That is not a civil case. That is still a prosecution in a court of criminal law and there would have to be proof beyond a reasonable doubt.
There would still be charges against the criminal law.

In civil cases, allegations are made claiming damages. The allegations ,if refuted , are heard in a civil court. The allegations can be found to be true on a balance of probabilities and if so, damages can be awarded.
If that happens there is still no conviction of a criminal offence, there is no criminal record.

There are rules of evidence strictly adhered to in criminal law cases.
IIRC, those rules do not necessarily apply in civil cases.
It is likely that evidence not allowed in criminal cases may be allowed in civil ones.
 

SocketRocket

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Seems there are a lot on here who don't realise this is a civil case and not a criminal one

Wrong,!
I understand the conceptual difference but am asking the question as I have heard of people bringing cases against dangerous drivers for example who they feel didn't receive suitable sentences.
Most of us aren't in the legal profession.
 

HomerJSimpson

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I have seen rumours and suggestions, that as senior royal Charles said to Andrew it needed to be done and done now. I am sure there is a grain of truth in that as no-one wants a court case overshadowing the queens platinum celebrations. Also there were concerns on how good he'd have been in court https://news.sky.com/story/prince-a...-gone-to-court-royal-biographer-says-12543306

Whether he did it or not and whether Virgina Giuffre and he did meet will obviously be open to conjecture for many years. I am pleased that a large proportion is going to a charity and the big hope is that the money will go on and do some real good so at least something positive can come out of this mess
 

Tashyboy

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I understand the conceptual difference but am asking the question as I have heard of people bringing cases against dangerous drivers for example who they feel didn't receive suitable sentences.
Most of us aren't in the legal profession.

This ☹️? It was something that was considered by a family member. Money once more bought suitable sentence.
 

Foxholer

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This ☹️? It was something that was considered by a family member. Money once more bought suitable sentence.
Can you expand? Were they originally charged with Dangerous Driving? And what was the charge, and consequence, in the Civil (presumably) Court?
 
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