rulie
Head Pro
General Penalty for stupidity!Does 'in play' have anything to do with it? Most 'wrong balls' on the course aren't in play but they are still wrong balls? (Otherwise the wrong ball rule is a nonsense)
So, what about my thoughts in #26?
Eg. Player knows (can see) 'other ball' is there
Other ball is in very close proximity to players ball.
Whilst 'other ball' is a movable obstruction, it is still 'a ball' (ie a wrong ball which you are not allowed to make a stroke at without penalty
To hit own ball, player knows they'll have to also hit other ball - ie can't hit own ball without intending to hit 'other ball' as well
So is the player making a stroke at a wrong ball? Should there be a penalty.
Ps - only asking, not arguing.
Which ball did the player intend to make a stroke at?