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Partner played wrong ball

LincolnShep

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Hi all,

I think we did the right thing at the weekend but I'm seeking confirmation or otherwise.

Was playing 4BBB stableford. My PP and I had both hit blind second shots and saw our balls drift to the right. PP found a ball, looked at the markings (but not the brand) and incorrectly assumed it was his. He played it and we then discovered it was my ball. That's a two stroke penalty for him (15-3b) which meant he couldn't score so he didn't play any more shots on the hole. I continued by dropping my ball back at the spot where PP had played it from and completed the hole without penalty.

In other words, I continued as if my ball was moved by an outside influence. My worry is, as he is my playing partner, does that count as an outside influence or should I have been penalised as well?

Thanks and regards,
Shep
 
Yes, wrong terminology, but the OP very obviously meant his partner.

By the way, LincolnShep, the same principle applies in better ball match play: if your partner plays a wrong ball he is disqualified from the hole but you can carry on.
 
Playing partner is not defined or used in the rules. Do you mean partner as defined in the rules.

[h=4]Partner[/h]A "partner" is a player associated with another player on the same side.

In threesome, foursome, best-ball or four-ball play, where the context so admits, the word "player" includes his partner or partners.

Whilst I am all for accuracy when discussing the rules, this seems to be going a little far. The OP says they are playing a BB stableford so seems to me that the player playing the wrong ball must be his partner.
 
Whilst I am all for accuracy when discussing the rules, this seems to be going a little far. The OP says they are playing a BB stableford so seems to me that the player playing the wrong ball must be his partner.

It may be obvious to many re this particular question but at other times a different rule applies to partners and 'playing partners'
 
Hi all,

I think we did the right thing at the weekend but I'm seeking confirmation or otherwise.

Was playing 4BBB stableford. My PP and I had both hit blind second shots and saw our balls drift to the right. PP found a ball, looked at the markings (but not the brand) and incorrectly assumed it was his. He played it and we then discovered it was my ball. That's a two stroke penalty for him (15-3b) which meant he couldn't score so he didn't play any more shots on the hole. I continued by dropping my ball back at the spot where PP had played it from and completed the hole without penalty.

In other words, I continued as if my ball was moved by an outside influence. My worry is, as he is my playing partner, does that count as an outside influence or should I have been penalized as well?
As your ball was moved by your PARTNER, it should have been replaced. (Rule 18-2 ) (Your PARTNER is not a outside agency)

However, since you stated that you DROPPED the ball, (when it should have been replaced) you played from a WRONG PLACE and would incur a two stroke penalty. (Rule 20-7 and Decision 20-6/1)

Had you dropped the ball and then realized, before you hit it, that it should have been placed, you could have lifted the ball and placed it on the spot from which your partner played his wrong ball. (Rule 20-6, the "eraser" rule) If you were not able to retrieve your original ball, then you could have placed another ball on that spot, instead.
 
As your ball was moved by your PARTNER, it should have been replaced. (Rule 18-2 ) (Your PARTNER is not a outside agency)

However, since you stated that you DROPPED the ball, (when it should have been replaced) you played from a WRONG PLACE and would incur a two stroke penalty. (Rule 20-7 and Decision 20-6/1)

Had you dropped the ball and then realized, before you hit it, that it should have been placed, you could have lifted the ball and placed it on the spot from which your partner played his wrong ball. (Rule 20-6, the "eraser" rule) If you were not able to retrieve your original ball, then you could have placed another ball on that spot, instead.

We can probably get LincolnShep off that hook. You can't tell without having been there, but it is unlikely that he would have been able to determine the exact spot from which his partner played and if that were the case, he was correct to drop.
 
We can probably get LincolnShep off that hook. You can't tell without having been there, but it is unlikely that he would have been able to determine the exact spot from which his partner played and if that were the case, he was correct to drop.
I was thinking more along the line that there was likely to be a divot of some sort so the spot would be known and the partner would know the lie, result in the ball being having to be placed. However, you are correct. We would have to be there and ask the appropriate questions to determine whether to drop or place.
 
I was thinking more along the line that there was likely to be a divot of some sort so the spot would be known and the partner would know the lie, result in the ball being having to be placed. However, you are correct. We would have to be there and ask the appropriate questions to determine whether to drop or place.

So should the ball be placed in/on the divot, if there was one :confused:
 
I hadn't even considered placing as an option to be honest. It was in the rough and there was no way to tell the exact spot from which my partner played, so I dropped as close as possible to the spot (but back a bit to be certain I wasn't nearer the green). Looks like I may have been right but by luck more than judgement.

Thank you to everyone for the help and advice.
 
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