Striking two balls with a swing

[LIG]

Player swings and strikes his ball then, in the follow through, also strikes a FC's ball.

I get that the FC's ball is replaced but are there any penaties involved for the player?

Secondly, is there any difference in a match?

What about if the balls were in a bunker?

 

[Colin L]

In stroke play, no penalty. FC replaces his ball (Rule 18-4). In match play, one stroke penalty and opponent replaces his ball. (Rule 18-3). No difference if the balls were in a bunker. The player replacing his ball must recreate the lie he had when his ball first came to rest in the bunker and can rake the other player's footprints.

Do I need to mention that the FC's/opponent's ball could have been - should have been - marked and lifted in the first instance?

 

[HawkeyeMS]

In stroke play, no penalty. FC replaces his ball (Rule 18-4). In match play, one stroke penalty and opponent replaces his ball. (Rule 18-3). No difference if the balls were in a bunker. The player replacing his ball must recreate the lie he had when his ball first came to rest in the bunker and can rake the other player's footprints.

Do I need to mention that the FC's/opponent's ball could have been - should have been - marked and lifted in the first instance?

Glad you said that as I was wondering how you would get into a situation of hitting your FCs\opponents ball while hitting yours?

 

[duncan mackie]

On this subject, there's also the situation where you are playing with a partner and manage to hit his ball when playing yours. This is one where you won't be popular as he gets the 1 shot penalty if you do it (assuming his ball was visible).

 

[LIG]

In stroke play, no penalty. FC replaces his ball (Rule 18-4). In match play, one stroke penalty and opponent replaces his ball. (Rule 18-3). No difference if the balls were in a bunker. The player replacing his ball must recreate the lie he had when his ball first came to rest in the bunker and can rake the other player's footprints.

Do I need to mention that the FC's/opponent's ball could have been - should have been - marked and lifted in the first instance?

Thanks Colin. :thup:
Happened yesterday - I was the player.
I did know that I could have the FC's ball marked before playing my shot but, having just been saved from playing his ball, I couldn't be ars...err... 'bothered' to do it. Extremely lazy I know, and I did in fact call that event BEFORE it happened, so feel even more of a numpty than usual.

 

[SwingsitlikeHogan]

Player swings and strikes his ball then, in the follow through, also strikes a FC's ball.

I get that the FC's ball is replaced but are there any penaties involved for the player?

Secondly, is there any difference in a match?

What about if the balls were in a bunker?

It was however very funny as I was on other side of the green and didn't realise that both your ball and mosquitto's were in the bunker. All I saw was an explosion of sand - what sounded like a double hit - and two balls coming flying out of the bunker :rofl:

 

[DAVEYBOY]

This happened to me, I was in deep rough with only my ball visable, when I struck my ball it shot off along with another. I think I was right in having no penalty applied.

 

[Val]

This happened to me, I was in deep rough with only my ball visable, when I struck my ball it shot off along with another. I think I was right in having no penalty applied.

Depends which ball you hit first because technically if its the other (maybe buried underneath yours and you dig at it) you get penalised for playing the wrong ball.

Happened at Gleneagles a few years ago, think it was Olazaball or Bjorn it happened to.

 

[MashieNiblick]

Depends which ball you hit first because technically if its the other (maybe buried underneath yours and you dig at it) you get penalised for playing the wrong ball.

Happened at Gleneagles a few years ago, think it was Olazaball or Bjorn it happened to.

Not sure about that, if it was concealed and you hit it first unintentionally.

Decision 15/2 Player's Stroke at Own Ball Dislodges Concealed Ball, states that

Q. A player plays a stroke with his own ball in the rough and also hits an old abandoned ball which was hidden beneath his ball. Since he struck the hidden ball, did he play a wrong ball?

A. No. The player played a stroke with his own ball, not with the hidden ball. Since he did not play a stroke with the hidden ball, Rule 15-3 is not applicable. The player must play his ball as it lies.

There is no mention of the order in which the balls were struck.

The Rule relates to making a stroke at a wrong ball. If the other ball was concealed, and you only hit it when trying to hit your own ball, then the decision seems to confirm that you can't be deemed to have made a stroke at the wrong ball since you weren't intending to hit it. I also think it would be virtually impossible to ascertain which ball was struck first.

Need an opinion from Duncan, Colin of Rulefan I think.

 

[Val]

I think I was mistaken at what happened and a quick google found it, guess where



http://forums.golf-monthly.co.uk/showthread.php?29753-what-happened-Monty-2nd-hole-Gleneagles

 

[DAVEYBOY]

It's impossible to know which ball I hit first. The exact same happened at the last ladies major and there was no penalty.

 

[MashieNiblick]

I think I was mistaken at what happened and a quick google found it, guess where



http://forums.golf-monthly.co.uk/showthread.php?29753-what-happened-Monty-2nd-hole-Gleneagles

Cheers for that, I had forgotton about this too.

A real oooh nooooo! moment. Sometimes this game can really kick you where it hurts.