chrisd
Major Champion
If he hasn’t dropped a ball then there is no ball in play at the time of his partner making a four. Does this then make the hole complete?
Is a ball in the pond not a ball in play until a subsequent action is taken?
If he hasn’t dropped a ball then there is no ball in play at the time of his partner making a four. Does this then make the hole complete?
But it's not for me to tell him what action to take . I had enough problems later with issues that I was more certain of the rules
I’m not sure, that’s why I’m asking. In my mind it is a ball in play so long as his team mate has a ball in play. Does it remain in play once he’s holed out?Is a ball in the pond not a ball in play until a subsequent action is taken?
I'm sure this does not match the geography of the OPs question.In what way has play been delayed?
What about undue delay of play. On the walk to the green, the player may have walked past the drop zone / area. Had he taken a drop and played his shot when it would have been his turn, this would have been most efficient in terms of time. However, he walked past this point towards the green, and then later walked all the way back to play the shot. This could cause a great delay on play, especially if the drop zone was a long way in front of the green.
I'm sure this does not match the geography of the OPs question.
But, imagine the player hit it into the water a long way in front of the green, such that he would be dropping 150 yards short of the green. He walks past this point, and decides he won't play on (but will do if it later transpires his score may still count). Play continues, and players eventually hole out. At that point, the player who stuck it in the water decides that if he holes out from where he'd dropped, his score may count. So, he walks all the way back 150 yards, plays shot, then walks 150 yards back towards the green. So, the player has effectively given himself another 300 yards to walk. Would that be considered undue delay?
Even if the water was a shorter distance in front of the green, if a players holed out on the green, and then one player walked back to drop a ball in front of the water, I know how I'd feel if I was in the group behind.
Yes but the ball is physically in play at that point. It doesn’t require dropped. That’s what confused me.it's still in play. (Think of the number of times in fourball a player holes out to secure a half so that his partner can go for a win with his longer putt.)
Yes but the ball is physically in play at that point. It doesn’t require dropped. That’s what confused me.
Understood, but a ball in a penalty area doesn't have to be dropped. It can be played as it lies - even if the lie is somewhat damp.
For information: a ruling body has now confirmed (written advice) that the player in the pond had forfeited the right to finish the hole, citing the authority as 23.6/1.
And thank you for your interpretation of 23.6/1 also. But to be very clear, the question that went to a ruling body was precisely your OP. The response was the player in the pond forfeited their capacity to finish the hole when they failed to play before either opponent closer to the hole played.Even though the player in the pond clearly didn't indicate that they weren't going to finish the hole which surely was the main point of 23.6/1 in fact the player clearly indicated that he was intending to continue the hole if necessary. That decision, which would be quite fair in my opinion is, however, quite the opposite of what 23.6/1 says. That is, unless, the ruling is because he IMPLIED he MIGHT NOT finish the hole?
,"In a Four-Ball match, if a side states or implies that the player on that side whose ball is farthest from the hole will not complete the hole, that player has abandoned his or her right to complete the hole, and the side may not change that decision after an opponent has played."
Maybe "will not complete the hole" should be changed to " may not complete the hole" ? There's a lot of difference between "will not" and "may" ?
Thanks for your post though
And thank you for your interpretation of 23.6/1 also. But to be very clear, the question that went to a ruling body was precisely your OP. The response was the player in the pond forfeited their capacity to finish the hole when they failed to play before either opponent closer to the hole played.
The unavoidable conclusion is many readers of 23.6/1 are misunderstanding that interpretation.
And nothing personal - I loved your question and I thank you for bringing it forward - but I have a strong tendency to prefer the views signed off by the USGA or the R&A than any contrary views that I or others sometimes come up with.
It is through processes like this that we can all get a better understanding of the rules.
No, the question sent in included the information in #3.So the OP and post #3 are different situations with different answers?
So is the modified post the same as the Q&A posted by the USGA?No, the question sent in included the information in #3.
Not the same, as you can observe by comparing Chris' question as reported in posts 1 and 3 with the USGA published Q reported above.So is the modified post the same as the Q&A posted by the USGA?
I was just seeking confirmation,. The thread was getting confusing.Not the same, as you can observe by comparing Chris' question as reported in posts 1 and 3 with the USGA published Q reported above.