But the point is it doesn't look like it is in!!
It's only because there is no red line it looks like it is in. If there was a red line it clearly would not be in the hazard. Surely, a player should not be penalised for a lack of a red line as he should also not take advantage of a missing one?
Thanks Rulie. That's fair enough but what if the ball is clearly outside the hazard if a red line was there but going stake to stake would mean it looks like it is in? Surely that is unfair?
On our course the hazards are marked out by red/yellow stakes and not red/yellow lines.
Q. Should the hazard be defined by stake to stake or the natural depression of the hazard? Sometimes the ball looks like it is nowhere near the hazard but if you go stake to stake it is. Very confusing.
Thanks.