JohnnyDee
Tour Winner
We have all played in competitions and matches where the rule is 3/4 our handicap - 3/4 difference taken off the lowest handicapper (better ball) or just 3/4 in 4-man 2 to count comps etc.
Can anyone explain the maths or science behind this as it often sparks the "It suits lower handicappers as they lose less" & "We all have managed handicaps so why can't we be allocated these?" discussions.
I'm guessing there is a reason but can't work it out. Some of my PPs believe it's a fit-up to suit the lower boys.
Can anyone explain the maths or science behind this as it often sparks the "It suits lower handicappers as they lose less" & "We all have managed handicaps so why can't we be allocated these?" discussions.
I'm guessing there is a reason but can't work it out. Some of my PPs believe it's a fit-up to suit the lower boys.